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Showing posts with label NKJV. Show all posts
Showing posts with label NKJV. Show all posts

Wednesday, May 21, 2025

KJV Supporters Ask: Who Isn't Listening to Whom?

Although to my way of thinking, dogmatic KJV-Onlyism is more akin to a mental condition than a scientifically tenable Bibliological position.  It's important to keep the lines of communication open with KJV-Onlyists.  Following up on my critique of Mark Ward's approach to the KJV last year, let's listen to what KJV advocate Christopher Yetzer had to say back in August 2024, now that Mark Ward has pledged to turn his attention to topics other than the KJV.
     Christopher wrote the following (edited and condensed in the interest of brevity):

Mark Ward

In a recent video Mark Ward complained that he wanted “to see a King James only defender listen hard to my viewpoint the way I’ve listened to theirs”. But who is the one who isn’t listening? Has Ward not been heard or is he just not listening to the response? Is it possible that it is Ward who is not listening? I will demonstrate that the opposite side has listened and responded. It is Ward who is not listening.
After I saw some of Nick Sayers’ review of Mark’s video titled “Is the NKJV Truly Based on the TR” I wrote to Mark on June 27, 2024 to let him know about an error he had made in the video. Doubting he would respond I made a Facebook post asking people to contact him to let him know of the error. Mark made a correction below that video as well as corrected himself in a video about two months later.
I sent him a list of several faults I see in the NKJV (that is for another post). None of my complaints were addressed in the new video. Ward acts as if the only difference between the NKJV and the KJV is the style of English. Just to be clear that there are other issues being discussed by the KJV side, here are some examples of people from different theological perspectives critiquing the NKJV: Bryan Ross - Jeff Riddle - Nick Sayers. Or consider Helge Evensen's article or many blog-posts by Robert Lee Vaughn or posts by Peter Van Kleeck .
Ward trampled on the Bibles and their editors which he promotes. The NKJV, for example, uses non-English words and archaic words. Leland Ryken, the literary stylist of the ESV, argued against Ward’s use of Tyndale, “The statement about the plowboy is not a comment about Tyndale’s preferred style for an English Bible. It is not a designation of teenage farm boys as a target audience for a niche Bible. Those misconceptions are the projections of modern partisans for a colloquial and simplified English Bible.”
I honestly must confess that I used to think that Ward would say things like “Nobody has answered me regarding my….” as a sort of self-flattering signal to his supporters that nobody could respond to his arguments. But now I really think he is just not listening. After I replied to his YouTube videos, Ward blocked me from commenting on his page in 2021. Last year I tried to post a critique of the many problems with the Parallel KJV website, only to be blocked by Ward from his Face Book page.
Did the two scholars featured on the site’s homepage evaluate its value and accuracy? Apparently not. However, when someone properly does, they get blocked for mentioning its faults. One of Ward’s video editors, Jonathan Burris, also blocked me from being able to leave any comment on his site. Does that sound like something someone would do who wants to listen to the other side? You would think I am some sort of vile expletive spilling troll, but instead Ward said, “I have blocked you from commenting on my videos. That doesn't erase past comments, as I understand it. I have enjoyed some of our exchanges, and I want them to be available to others in the future who look at my videos.”
I understand we are all busy but Ward expects that academic deans and chancellors will listen to his videos and change their language on the TR, all the while his own calling is limited to doing prep work while taking care of the yard.
Let’s be clear: we have heard your message, Mark. We just disagree. We disagree on the amount of difficulties that exist in the KJV. We disagree that "Edification Requires Intelligibility" gives a pass to difficulties in modern translations. We disagree that another attempt at updating the KJV would bring better unity and more authority to the text. We disagree that the only differences in the NKJV are the forms of English that were used. We disagree that the KJV was modern in 1611. We disagree that few differences is the same thing as minor differences. We disagree that oldest is best. We disagree that you have not been responded to. We disagree in your methods of interpreting KJV words. We have heard you and we respectfully disagree.
___________


Thursday, May 15, 2025

John 13:2 - When's Suppertime?

“It’s a Frankentext.” That’s one of the objections made against the UBS/Nestle-Aland compilation:  in hundreds of verses, if the UBS compilation is correct, no scribe of any extant manuscript anywhere preserved the original contents.  The Tyndale House GNT’s form of John 13:2 agrees with 03 except for its minor orthographic reading δίπνου.  

 

John 13:2 is a case in point.  In Swanson’s volume on the Gospel of John the UBS compilation stands alone, the exact array of the 16 words in the UBS/N-A compilation is not found in any extant witness.  The Tyndale House GNT’s form of John 13:2 agrees with 03 except for its minor orthographic reading δίπνου.  Let’s walk through the verse just to get the lay of the land.

 

Byz : UBS

 

καὶ : καὶ

δείπνου : δείπνου

γενομένου : γινομένου

τοῦ : τοῦ

διαβόλου : διαβόλου

ηδη : ηδη

βεβληκότος : βεβληκότος

εἰς : εἰς

τὴν : τὴν

καρδίαν :  καρδίαν

Ἰούδα : Ἰούδα                         ἳνα                              

Σίμωνος : Σίμωνος                  παραδοι

Ἰσκαριώτου :                           αὐτὸν

ἳνα :                                         Ἰούδας

αὐτὸν :                                     Σίμωνος

παραδω :                                 Ἰσκαριώτης

 

Aside from the transposition at the end of the verse, γενομενου versus γινομενου near the beginning separates the Byzantine Text from the Alexandrian Text – did the footwashing occur while supper was taking place or when supper had ended?   The majority of popular English versions favors “during supper” –

 

KJV, NKJV:  supper being ended

MEV:  supper being concluded.” 

ASV, AMP, EOB, ESV, NASB, NRSV, WEB:  “during supper”

NIV:  “The evening meal was in progress”

CSB:  “time for supper”

CEV:  “before the evening meal started”

Rheims:  “when supper was done”

EHV: “By the time the supper took place”

NLT: “It was time for supper”


It was not my goal today to settle this textual contest - Jordan Shollenbarger is looking into it, and may share his finding in a future post.  I just wanted to bring the variation, and the varying English echoes, to your attention.

Saturday, March 21, 2020

Testing the Hark Chart


            It is not rare to find, among advocates of the Textus Receptus, the promotion of a chart titled Providential Preservation of the Text of the New Testament.  The central portion of the chart depicts two transmission-lines of the text; brief comments to the left and right of the chart summarize what the chart proposes:  basically, that the text of Antioch is the good text – handed down in its completely pristine form from the apostles to the KJV – while the text of Alexandria is the bad text – corrupted by Gnostics and Arians before being compiled by apostates.
            Let’s test the accuracy of some of the claims that are made in this material.   

Q #1:  Does the early text of the New Testament neatly fall into two forms?
A:  No.  This arrangement describes the base-texts of English versions of the New Testament; the KJV, NKJV, and MEV are basically Byzantine, and the NIV, ESV, NLT, and CSB are basically Alexandrian.  But the texts in Greek New Testament manuscripts and early versions fall into more than two categories:  besides the Byzantine Text (called the Antiochan text in the chart) and the Alexandrian Text, there was also the widespread Western Text, and the more limited Caesarean Text of the Gospels, and mixed texts (in which readings from more than one of the other four forms appear).

Q #2:  Was the city of Alexandria “a place where every deviant sect was represented” and where “Religious corruption and false doctrines were prevalent including Gnosticism, Arianism, pagan philosophy, etc.”?
A:  There is almost no evidence from the 100s to support the idea that the theology of residents of Alexandria was better or worse than the theology of residents of most major cities in the Roman Empire.  Egypt certainly had its share of heretics – Basilides, for example, and the Gnostics of Nag Hammadi.  However, Nag Hammadi is 450 miles to the south of Alexandria – further than the distance from Chicago, Illinois to Cleveland, Ohio.  It would be an enormous assumption to suppose that because Alexandria and Nag Hammadi are both in Egypt, the same heresies were spread in both places to the same extent. 
            Alexandria was not the only city to harbor false teachers.  Valentinus, an infamous heretic, resided at Rome for 30 years.  Marcion was from Pontus (northern Turkey).  Heracleon’s headquarters were probably in Italy.  Porphyry of Tyre, an opponent of Christianity in the 200s, worked in Rome and Sicily.  Mani, founder of Manichaeism, came from what is now central Iraq.  Bardaisan worked in Syria and Armenia.  In the mid-200s, the false teacher Paul of Samosata was bishop of Antioch for eight years.  Nestorius, after being trained in Antioch, was briefly archbishop of Constantinople, c. 430, before being denounced as a heretic by Cyril of Alexandria.  In addition, the book of Acts and the letters of Paul demonstrate that false teachers were active in Greece and Turkey and Israel in the first century of Christianity.  Alexandria, as the second-largest city in the Roman Empire, was exceptionally big, not exceptionally bad.  In addition, the contributions to orthodoxy by people from Alexandria such as Athanasius, and the piety of Pachomian monks in Egypt, should not be overlooked.
           
Q #3:  Is it an essential doctrine to believe that God has preserved every word of the original text “through the ages in the church”? 
A:  Adherents to the manmade creed known as the Westminster Confession of 1646 affirm that the Old Testament in Hebrew and the New Testament in Greek, “being immediately inspired by God, and, by His singular care and providence, kept pure in all ages, are therefore authentical.”  The Greek texts used by the formulators of the Westminster Confession were essentially Byzantine – specific, they were the printed editions made in the 1500s – and thus, while disputes might conceivably occur regarding differences at certain points in those printed editions – an appreciation of the historical context of this statement in the Westminster Confession might preclude an embrace of a compilation that relies fundamentally on a different form of the text:  two Greek New Testaments that differ at a thousand points affecting translation cannot, strictly speaking, both be considered “pure” forms of the text; both cannot be the original form of the text. 
            On the other hand, the term “pure” may be understood to refer to the retention of the authentic meaning of the original text, not necessarily its exact form.  Many medieval Christians who encountered the Greek New Testament did so when reading lectionaries – books in which the text was divided into segments, for which introductory phrases were added, and in which proper names were also added to identify the characters in the separated passages, and in which parallel-passages were at various points also introduced. 
            Few if any clergymen of the 1500s and 1600s would have denounced lectionaries as if they contained an “impure” form of the text, inasmuch as their meaning was no different than what could normally be found in the unsegmented, continuous text.  Yet, strictly speaking, the segmented and supplemented form of a lectionary is obviously not the original form of the text.  My point here is that a general affirmation that a specific form of the text is “pure,” inasmuch as it retains the didactic content of the original text – that is, it teaches the same thing – is not the same as a statement that a specific form of the text is the original text.
            In addition, I see no reason why anyone should feel obligated to adhere to the Westminster Confession of Faith merely because a previous generation did so.  Its formulators did not intend to make the creed itself a rival to the New Testament’s authority.  I suspect that if they were to have at their disposal the materials that are available today, they would use different words to affirm their allegiance to God’s revelation in the original text of the Old Testament and New Testament – without giving the impression that the foundation for their understanding of the original form of the New Testament (the compilations made in the 1500s, and the evidence upon which they were based) ought to be locked in place forever as the Greek New Testament and become the basis for a new “essential doctrine.”

Q #4 and #5:  Does Psalm 12:7 contain a promise that God will make all of the words of the original text available to Christians on earth in every generation?  And is such a promise fulfilled by the Textus Receptus?
A:  Those who set the KJV and the NIV or ESV side-by-side will notice that this verse has been translated very differently:  in the KJV, when Psalm 12:7 says, “ Thou shalt keep them, O Lord, thou shalt preserve them from this generation for ever,” the natural understanding is that the author is referring to the words of the Lord mentioned in verse 6 – “The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.”
            In the NIV (2011), however, verse 7 refers to the needy individuals describes in verse 5 – “You, Lord, will keep the needy safe and will protect us forever from the wicked,” and verse 6 is presented as something parenthetical.   Likewise the ESV says, “You, O Lord, will keep them; you will guard us from this generation forever.”  The NLT seems designed to preclude the interpretation that verse 7 refers to the words of the Lord:   “Therefore, Lord, we know you will protect the oppressed, preserving them forever from this lying generation.”  
            I leave it to others to consider the arguments for both renderings – Kent Brandenburg engaged Doug Kutilek’s interpretation in 2010; Jon Rehurek argued for the NIV’s rendering in 2008; in 2017 Bryan Ross engaged the approach that had been promoted by William Combs in 2000.  Other passages – Proverbs 30:5, Isaiah 40:7-8, Matthew 24:35, etc. – do not leave much room for the idea that the inspired words of the original text of Scripture have passed away.  At the same time, I see nothing in any of those passages that suggests that God is obligated to make all of those words available to any particular believer, or group of believers, in every generation.  To put it another way:  the veracity of these promises is granted but there are three very different ways they can be interpreted:  it is one thing to propose (a) that every word of the original text is perfectly known by our omniscient God.  It is something else to propose (b) that every word of the original text is preserved intact in some extant witness, somewhere.  And it is something else to propose (c) that every word of the original text of the New Testament has been preserved intact in the Textus Receptus in every generation.
            It is that third proposal that the Hark Chart (so called because it was prepared by H. N. Arkell of Hark Ministries) advocates.  However, there is not much evidence that this is the case – and there is plentiful evidence that this is not the case.  Hundreds of reading in the Textus Receptus are not supported by the majority of Greek manuscripts.  For some readings in the Textus Receptus, Greek manuscript-support is very sparse.  And for some readings in the Textus Receptus, there is no Greek manuscript-support at all.  Acts 9:5-6, for example, is part of the Textus Receptus, but, as far as I can tell, it is not in the Greek text of any manuscript made before the 1500s.  
            Although the Hark Chart gives its readers the impression that 5,210 manuscripts stand behind the KJV’s New Testament base-text, this is untrue at hundreds of points where the Textus Receptus has a reading that is not in the Byzantine Textform.   Here are 10 examples of readings in the Textus Receptus that are not supported by the majority of manuscripts in the Byzantine (Antiochan) Text, drawn from the Gospel of Matthew:
            3:8 – most MSS support “fruit,” not “fruits”         
            3:11 – most MSS do not have “and fire” at the end of the verse  
            5:27 – most MSS do not support “by them of old time”   
            5:47 – most MSS support “friends” instead of “brethren”
            6:18 – most MSS do not have “openly” at the end of this verse   
            8:5 – most MSS do not specifically name Jesus here
            8:25 – most MSS do not refer to the disciples here as “His” (αυτου)
            10:8 – most MSS do not have “raise the dead” after “cleanse the lepers”
            12:35 – most MSS do not have “of the heart” here
            26:38 – most MSS specifically name Jesus near the beginning of this verse

            Many other translation-impacting textual contests in which most manuscripts disagree with the base-text of the KJV can be found in a 2018 article by Luke Wayne at the CARM website.   My point here is not to defend all of these majority-readings, but rather to make clear that the KJV’s base-text and the Byzantine (Antiochan) Text are two different things.  The Hark Chart’s claim that “every word” has been passed down from the original New Testament documents, to the Textus Receptus, with the support of 5,210 manuscripts, is not true.

Q #6:  Did Clement of Alexandria and Origen have a strong impact on the New Testament text?
A:  Although Origen, in the first half of the 200s, did some thorough research on the text of the Old Testament – compiling his Hexapla, for example – his comments about textual variants in the New Testament are rather mild; he mentions relatively few textual variants, and occasionally emphasizes how each rival reading can be edifying.
            Clement of Alexandria does not appear to have attempted to standardize the New Testament text either.  He certainly does not appear to have strictly followed the Alexandrian form of the text:  Carl Cosaert, in his 2008 research-book The Text of the Gospels in Clement of Alexandria, acknowledged that in the Synoptic Gospels (Matthew, Mark, and Luke), “no single text-type played a dominant influence on Clement’s text.”          
           
Q #7:  Do Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus contain corruptions due to the influence of false teachers such as Origen?
A:   In Codex Sinaiticus (À), in the first seven chapters of the Gospel of John, the text is rather more Western than Alexandrian.  It is as if the copyists who made À relied on a damaged Gospels-manuscript as the basis for most of the Gospels, but for these chapters, a different exemplar was used.  Bart Ehrman has shown that in this portion of John, À has some affinities with the text of John used by the second-century heretic Heracleon (who was answered, in the 200s, by Origen).  It does not seem improbable to me that the copyists who made À were working at Caesarea, at the same library which Origen had accessed a century earlier.  If that were the case, they might have used the same text of John that Heracleon used (and possibly edited).  In addition, if À were made at Caesarea in the mid-300s, then it seems likely that its copyists worked for bishops Acacius and Euzoius, both of whom were Arian.  That could have had an effect on some decisions about which readings to adopt when encountering different readings in different copies of New Testament books – but this is a difficult scene to bring into focus from such a chronological distance.
            In Codex Vaticanus (B), there are a few readings that suggest Marcionite influence; in Romans 1:16, for example, the word “first” is strangely absent.  However, in the Alexandrian Text as a whole – setting aside readings peculiar to individual manuscripts – while there are some readings that are unquestionably errors (seen, for example, in Matthew 27:49 and Acts 27:37), almost all of them can be explained as having arise by scribal carelessness (for instance, via the confusion of sacred-name contractions) rather than as the result of a doctrinal agenda.  Another interesting feature of Codex B is that its copyists tended not to contract references to the Holy Spirit; this may reflect Binitarian, rather than Trinitarian, theology.  However this does not reduce the importance or value of the Alexandrian Text itself, which is extant in other witnesses.
            To summarize:  while both Vaticanus and Sinaiticus may have emerged from less-than-orthodox backgrounds, relatively few readings in the Alexandrian Text pose any sort of obstacle to Christian orthodoxy.     
  
Q #7:  Did Westcott and Hort, who were responsible for a heavily Alexandrian revision of the New Testament text released in 1881, undertake that revision with a pro-Roman-Catholic, pro-evolution agenda?
A:  Hort said some things in his many letters that are the basis for valid concerns; he was rather racist; he opposed democracy; he expressed sympathy with Roman Catholicism to an extent, and he was far from conservative.  At the same time, there is not much evidence that any of that had an effect on his text-critical research.  Many elements of Hort’s approach were already expressed – before European scholars were aware of Codex Sinaiticus – by J. J. Griesbach (d. 1812) and by Granville Penn (d. 1844).  In addition, Samuel Tregelles (d. 1875), whose theological school of thought tended to be much more conservative than Hort’s, issued a multi-volume compilation of the Greek New Testament which anticipated in many respects the compilation later issued by Westcott and Hort. 
            In short, while we cannot read the minds of Westcott and Hort, it seems precarious to attribute a doctrinal agenda to their text-critical decisions when we can observe advocates of other doctrinal schools of thought making the same, or very similar, decisions.

Q#8:  Compared to the traditional text, do modern versions such as the NIV and ESV add 306 words that should not be in the New Testament text, and omit 2,987 words (including 20 verses) that should be there?
A:  This claim is based on data in E. W. Fowler’s book Evaluating Versions of the New Testament, which I do not have, so it is not easy at present to discern exactly what words the maker of the Hark Chart had in mind.  An exact and permanent account of the differences between the Textus Receptus and the critical text is not easy to obtain, because the Nestle-Aland edition of the critical text continues to undergo revision.  However, an estimate provided by Jack Moorman, a prominent promoter of the KJV, in 1988, sums up the differences:  the Nestle-Aland text is shorter than the Received Text (i.e., the Textus Receptus) by 2,886 words.  That does not mean that there are only 2,886 differences:  in many places, both the Textus Receptus and the Nestle-Aland compilation have a word, but it is not the same word.   KJV-advocate D. A. Waite offered some more detailed calculations:  using the Textus Receptus as the basis of comparison, there are 5,604 changes in the 1881 revision of Westcott & Hort, of which 1,852 are omissions, 467 are additions, and 3,185 are other changes (such as word-exchanges and transpositions). 
            Thus, there seems to be some incongruity about just how much the Textus Receptus differs from the KJV’s base-text:  Fowler apparently claimed that 2,987 words – just a little less than 3,000 – are omitted; Waite claimed that 1,852 words – fewer than 2,000 – are omitted.  Perhaps different editions of the critical text were used.   No matter which report one favors, the differences are significant.
            A key factor to consider in such statistics is the use of the Textus Receptus as the basis of comparison.  What if, instead, one used the readings favored by the majority of Greek manuscripts as the basis of comparison?  In that case, the Textus Receptus would be found to deviate from the majority-reading in over a thousand places.  (Daniel Wallace has claimed to have found 1,838 differences between the Textus Receptus and the Hodges-Farstad Majority Text; however many differences in his list (such as differences in the spelling of David’s name, which is often contracted in manuscripts) are untranslatable.  Michael Marlowe has offered a better estimate of 1,005 differences.)  
            The Hark Chart gives readers no hint that the Textus Receptus contains 1,005 readings which diverge from the Byzantine (Antiochan) Text.  Instead, it makes it looks as 100% of the Textus Receptus is allied with 5,210 manuscripts, and with the Peshitta, and with the “Old Latin and Syriac of the Originals” and with papyri from 150-400.  Such an impression is far different from what one finds in the Peshitta and the Old Latin and in the papyri when they are studied in detail; they contain many readings that diverge from the Textus Receptus.       
            In conclusion:  the Hark Chart is not an accurate depiction of the transmission of the text of the New Testament.  It is KJV-Only propaganda.




Readers are invited to double-check the data in this post.



           




Friday, September 28, 2018

Mark 2:16 - Eating and Drinking with Sinners


            In Mark 2:16, there are several interesting textual contests.  Today I will focus on three of them.  First, did Mark refer to “the scribes of the Pharisees,” or to “the scribes and the Pharisees”?  Second, is the original word-order, in Mark’s description of those with Jesus, “tax collectors and sinners” or “sinners and tax collectors”?  Third, at the end of the verse, do the religious leaders object that Jesus is eating with tax collectors and sinners, or that Jesus is eating and drinking with tax collectors and sinners?   
            The differences are conveyed by the bold print in the quotations shown here from the English Standard Version and the New King James Version:

ESV:   And the scribes of the Pharisees, when they saw that he was eating with sinners and tax collectors, said to his disciples, “Why does he eat with tax collectors and sinners?”

NKJV:  And when the scribes and Pharisees saw Him eating with the tax collectors and sinners, they said to his disciples, “Why is it that he eats and drinks with tax collectors and sinners?”

Let’s address each variant-unit separately.

The scribes and the Pharisees, or the scribes of the Pharisees? 

            Almost all English translations that are based on the Nestle-Aland compilation agree with the meaning of the ESV. (The NET is a surprising exception; it refers to “the experts in the law and the Pharisees.”)  Meanwhile, the KJV, NKJV, and MEV agree with the Byzantine base-text, found in the vast majority of Greek manuscripts of Mark.
            The attestation for οἱ γραμματεῖς τῶν Φαρισαίων is sparse:  Among uncial manuscripts, only Codex W has exactly this reading, although Codex B differs by only one letter (reading οἱ γραμματεῖς τῶν Φαρεισαίων).  In the damaged fragment 0130, from the 800s, the words τῶν Φαρισαίων have survived, according to Tischendorf’s transcription.  In addition, although À and L lack the οἱ before γραμματεῖς, they support τῶν instead of καὶ οἱ.  The Nestle-Aland apparatus also lists Papyrus 88vid (assigned to the 300s) as a witness in favor of τῶν.          
            Internal evidence strongly favors the reading τῶν (yielding “the scribes of the Pharisees”)rather than καὶ οἱ (“the scribes and the Pharisees”).  The reading οἱ γραμματεῖς καὶ οἱ Φαρισαίων (“the scribes and the Pharisees”) was more familiar to copyists, due in part to the repeated mention of scribes and Pharisees together in Jesus’ denunciation of both groups in Matthew 23.  (The phrase also appears in Luke 5:21, 6:7, and 11:53, and in John 8:3 (in the most widely-circulated form of the verse).)
            A conformation to οἱ γραμματεῖς καὶ οἱ Φαρισαίων would be natural, and is the sort of scribal alteration that could occur even unconsciously; the reading οἱ γραμματεῖς τῶν Φαρισαίων, on the other hand, is unusual, and there does not seem to be anything intrinsic in οἱ γραμματεῖς καὶ οἱ Φαρισαίων that would provoke a change to οἱ γραμματεῖς τῶν Φαρισαίων. 
            Another consideration is that in the parallel in Luke 5:30, the Byzantine Text reads οἱ γραμματεῖς αὐτῶν καὶ οἱ Φαρισαίων (“their scribes and the Pharisees”), where the Alexandrian Text reads οἱ Φαρισαῖοι καὶ οἱ γραμματεῖς αὐτῶν (“the Pharisees and their scribes”).  Here, again, nothing in the Byzantine Text seems puzzling or likely to provoke copyists to change anything, whereas the Alexandrian reading appears to refer to the religious group that is mentioned in Acts 23:9, where Luke refers to “the scribes of the Pharisees’ party.”  Codex Sinaiticus, in Luke 5:30, deviates from most other Alexandrian witnesses by referring to “the Pharisees and the scribes” (without “their”), exemplifying a scribal tendency to keep the two groups (the scribes, and the Pharisees) distinct. 
            All things considered, despite the huge numerical advantage of “the scribes and the Pharisees,” the internal evidence compels the adoption of “the scribes of the Pharisees.”    
      
“Sinners and tax collectors” or “Tax collectors and sinners”?

In Codex W, the text of Mark 2:16 was shortened
to relieve a perceived redundancy.
            Practically all major manuscripts (except Codex D) agree in the second half of Mark 2:16 that Mark wrote “tax collectors” and then “and sinners.”  Earlier in the verse, though, Codices B, D, L, Θ, and minuscules 33 and 565 refer to “the sinners and tax collectors” where À, A, C, and most manuscripts refer to “the tax collectors and sinners.”  The evidence is a bit more uniform in English than it is in Greek:  Papyrus 88, the corrected text of Codex B, the text of Codex D, the text of Θ, and minuscule 33 read (after μετὰ) τῶν ἁμαρτωλῶν καὶ τῶν τελωνῶν.  (But Codex B as initially written did not have τῶν before τελωνῶν, and Codex D adds another καὶ after τελωνῶν.)        
            What happened here?  Either copyists made the word-order in the first part of the verse resemble the word-order in the second part, or else copyists made the word-order different  or both.  The text of Codex D reflects the former – but its word-order is in a category all its own: both parts have the word-order “the sinners and the tax collectors.”  Meanwhile, some Alexandrian copyists considered the repetition of the same word-order to be redundant.  (The scribe responsible for the text of W must have considered it very redundant, for he removed the first phrase entirely.)  For that reason, they transposed the first reference – and in the process they not only transferred τελωνῶν to follow τῶν ἁμαρτωλῶν but also transferred (and repeated) τῶν.  This double-occurrence of τῶν is a vestige of scribal editing.  Codex B’s corrector even went a little further, adding τῶν before ἁμαρτωλῶν in the second occurrence as well.)  The original word-order is thus μετὰ τῶν τελωνῶν καὶ ἁμαρτωλῶν (“with the tax collectors and sinners”) in both parts of the verse.           

“He eats” or “He eats and drinks”?

If rival variants could be compared to racehorses, there is a race at the end of Mark 2:16 in which a dozen horses are competing.  Scribes copying the text of Mark here recollected the parallel-passages in Matthew 9:11 and Luke 5:30.  In Matthew, there is no mention of Jesus drinking; Luke mentions both eating and drinking – but both parallel-passages have their own unique aspects as well.  As a result, this passage has been corrupted in different ways; here are a few examples:

Codex À harmonizes Mark 2:16 to Matthew 9:11, forming the question, “Why with tax collectors and sinners does your teacher eat?”. 

Codex C and 579 also harmonize Mark 2:16 to Matthew 9:11, but in a different way, and with a reference to drinking:  “How is it that with tax collectors and sinners your teacher eats and drinks?”.

Codices L and Δ also harmonize, like the harmonization in À, but with a reference to drinking:  “Why with tax collectors and sinners eats and drinks your teacher?”.  (Neither conforms to Lukeἐσθίετε καὶ πίνετε.) 

Most manuscripts end Mark 2:16 with ἐσθίει καὶ πίνει, so that the question is, “How is it that with tax collectors and sinners He eats and drinks?”.  However, in Codices B, D, and W, the verse ends with  just ἐσθίει.  Similarly Codex Θ and 1424 read ἐσθίετε, a slight adjustment which matches up with the ἐσθίετε (but not πίνετε) in Luke 5:30.  (It is notable that in Luke 5:30 in Codex K, there is similarly only a reference to eating, and not to drinking.)

Two factors contributed to the loss of the reference to drinking at the end of the verse:  first, a tendency to harmonize to the parallel-passage in Matthew.  Second, simple scribal carelessness:  verse 17 begins with καὶ, so both homoioteleuton and homoioarcton occur together here.  It is not surprising that when an early copyist’s line of sight went from the first occurrence of ει καὶ to the second occurrence of the same letters in the line ἐσθίει καὶ πίνει καὶ, he did not detect the resultant accidental omission, inasmuch as the sentence still made sense. 

The text at the end of Mark 2:16 as it existed in Egypt before this omission occurred, however, is attested by Papyrus 88:  it supports ἐσθίει καὶ πίνει.  The minuscule 892, known for its Alexandrian character, also supports “eating and drinking” at the end of Mark 2:16, as do (as already mentioned) C and 579 which despite being harmonized to Matthew still refer to drinking, not just eating.  (Like L and Δ, they read ἐσθίει καὶ πίνει, not the Lukan wording ἐσθίετε καὶ πίνετε.)  (L has an itacism, reading πίνι.)

These are not the only variant-units within Mark 2:16, and it is probably no exaggeration to conclude, when surveying them all, that not a single extant manuscript has transmitted the original text of this entire verse in its pristine form:  different attempts to harmonize the text, and to amplify its meaning, have affected different witnesses in different ways.  (Readers are encouraged to consult Wieland Willker’s Textual Commentary on the Greek Gospels:  Mark for more data about the complex series of variants in this verse.)  The sense of the passage, however, is consistently maintained:  the religious leaders asked Jesus’ disciples why He was taking His meals with the people they considered the dregs of society.  When Jesus answered, He gave an important insight about the nature of the gospel.  There is a textual variant in His answer in Mark 2:17, too – but that’s a subject for another post.



Sunday, July 3, 2016

Crosspoint Church and the Ending of Mark

Last month, Logan Catoe of Crosspoint Church in Clemson, South Carolina offered an online explanation of why the elders decided to end the study of the Gospel of Mark at 16:8 instead of teaching from Mark 16:9-20.  The explanation included some problematic claims.  Here are 20 of them (in blue print), with clarifications and corrections. 

1.  If you’re reading from the ESV, NIV, NASB, HCSB, or NLT, verses 9-20 of Mark 16 are bracketed and accompanied by a note stating the earliest manuscripts do not include this final portion of the book.

● Not exactly.  The HCSB’s note only says that “Other mss omit bracketed text.”  The notes in the other versions vary, and sometimes the notes in the same version differ from one edition to another.   

2.  If you’re reading the KJV or NKJV, you will notice there are no brackets or note.  

● False.  The NKJV has a note.  It says, “Verses 9-20 are bracketed in NU-Text as not original.  They are lacking in Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus, although nearly all other manuscripts of Mark contain them.”  Catoe’s claim about the NKJV is flatly wrong.

Codex W.  Mark 16:9 begins in the
line next to the red arrow.
3.  The KJV and NKJV are translated from a set of Greek manuscripts dated after the 12th century.  

● That sentence makes it seem as if the manuscript-evidence for Mark 16:9-20 is anchored in the 1100’s.  In real life, however, all undamaged Greek manuscripts of Mark other than Vaticanus and Sinaiticus – over 1,600 manuscripts such as Codex Alexandrinus, Codex Washingtonianus, Codex Cyprianus, Codex Bezae, and Codex Campianus – support the inclusion of Mark 16:9-20.  In addition, over 40 patristic and versional sources from the era of the Roman Empire also support the passage.    

4.  The KJV was originally translated from Latin by John Wycliffe and published in 1611.

● The first part of that sentence is ludicrous.  Catoe needs to get a grip on the history of the text.  The translation that Wycliffe made was based on a Latin Vulgate text, in the 1300’s.

5.  In 1525-1526 William Tyndale revised the KJV using Greek manuscripts, providing the first English translation from the Greek text.  

● That claim does not correspond to reality either.  Inasmuch as the KJV was not published until 1611, it did not exist in 1525-1526, so Tyndale could not revise it.  What Tyndale did accomplish was an English translation based on a compilation of the Greek New Testament which Desiderius Erasmus had made earlier in the 1500’s.   

6.  The only Greek manuscripts available to him at that time were 12th century or newer.  These particular manuscripts included Mark 16:9-20.

Codex A.  Mark 16:9 begins
in the line next to the red arrow
.
● This is another attempt by Catoe to convey that the manuscript-support for Mark 16:9-20 is from the 1100’s.  So let the reader know that Mark 16:9-20 is supported by Codices A, C, D, W, N, and many others.  Know also that the contents of this passage are cited in patristic compositions that were written before the production-dates of the earliest existing manuscripts of Mark 16, showing that the passage was present in manuscripts that were made before the production of our earliest existing manuscripts of Mark 16.

7.  Greek manuscripts dating back to the 4th century were not discovered until the 19th century.  These manuscripts are considered to be more reliable because they were transcribed much closer to the time of the biblical authors.  
 
● A reckless application of the general idea that the age of a manuscript’s material is a measure of the quality of its text would be truly disastrous.  Fortunately not even the compilers of the base-text(s) of the NIV and ESV believed that this idea should be applied mechanically; they rejected readings found in the oldest manuscripts hundreds of times. 

8.  Neither of the two most important and complete 4th century manuscripts have Mark 16:9-20; they simply end the book of Mark at 16:8.  

● The evidence involving the end of Mark in Vaticanus and Sinaiticus is not so simple at all.  Regarding Codex Vaticanus’ distinct blank space after Mark 16:8, see my analysis at this link, and for details about Codex Sinaiticus’ replacement-pages and anomalous lettering, see this link.  

9.  Additionally, neither Clement of Alexandria nor Origen — early church fathers in the 2nd and 3rd centuries — indicate any knowledge of text beyond verse 8.

● Here we encounter two problems:  first, there is a problem with what Catoe does not mention:  the testimony of Justin Martyr, Tatian, Irenaeus, and the anonymous author of Epistula Apostolorum.  They all display an awareness of the contents of Mark 16:9-20 in one way or another, in the 100’s.  (Many other patristic writers who utilized the passage also go unmentioned.  This is congruent to the use of unequal unequal weights.  Does anyone at Crosspoint think that it is fair to ignore the evidence from the 100’s in this way?) 

Second, Catoe did not explain that Clement makes very few quotations from the Gospel of Mark; Clement makes no use of 12 of Mark’s 16 chapters.  It is no surprise that Clement treats Mark 16:9-20 the same way he treats almost all of the Gospel of Mark – and it is certainly not evidence that Clement’s copies of Mark ended at 16:8.  Unfortunately Catoe has molded the evidence so as to convey precisely that false impression.  Similarly, regarding Origen (if his statements in chapter 5 of Philocalia do not allude to Mark 16:15-20), his non-use of Mark 16:9-20 does not imply the absence of the passage in his manuscripts any more than his non-use of several much longer sections of the Gospel of Mark implies that they were absent in his manuscripts.  It is only by keeping the details about Clement and Origen in the shadows that Catoe can maintain the impression that they bring any sort of meaningful testimony against Mark 16:9-20.  
 
10.  The evidence reveals the older manuscripts (4th century) did not have verses 9-20 but the newer manuscripts (12th century) did.  

● That is recklessly false.  It is remarkable that although digital images of early manuscripts such as Codex A, Codex D, and Codex W can be freely accessed online, this falsehood continues to be circulated.  (And a small army of evangelical scholars has irresponsibly allowed it to spread for decades!)  All that one needs to do to expose Catoe’s false claim is to consult the patristic and versional evidence, which shows that manuscripts in the 100’s, 200’s, 300’s, 400’s, and onward contained Mark 16:9-20.  Only in transmission-lines influenced by a localized form of the text in Egypt did the text of Mark stop at the end of 16:8.  From Patrick in Ireland, to Irenaeus in Gaul, to Augustine in North Africa, to Epiphanius in Cyprus, to Aphrahat in Syria, to Eznik in Armenia, the support for these 12 verses is early, abundant, and widespread

My lecture in response to John MacArthur's
false claims about Mark 16:9-20:
Part One, Part Two, and Part Three.
Catoe’s description of the internal evidence suggests that he strongly depended upon a sermon that John MacArthur delivered in 2011.  I have already responded to the falsehoods spread by MacArthur, but even though I personally contacted Grace To You on this subject and informed them about the falsehoods, inaccuracies, and half-truths spread by John MacArthur in that sermon, as explained in detail in my three-part response, Grace To You continues to circulate it – thus severely misinforming Catoe and many others.  (MacArthur is not entirely to blame; he used to accept Mark 16:9-20 as Scripture before being misinformed about various points by commentator William Lane.) 

11.  “Now” implies continuity with the previous subject matter, but the subject has changed from the women in verse 8 to Jesus in verse 9.

● No; the English term “Now” in Mark 16:9 is based on the simple Greek word δε, and this is completely consistent with Markan usage.
 
12.  The use of “He” in verse 9 requires an antecedent, meaning Jesus would need to be formally addressed in the previous section to maintain proper grammatical structure.

● Catoe has repeated a statement made by John MacArthur; unfortunately the statement is false.  It is not unusual for Mark to refer to Jesus without mentioning His name, even when the antecedent noun is not “Jesus.”  

13.  Jesus is only mentioned by the angel, leaving the women as the subject of the text.

● The Greek word that begins 16:9 is Αναστας, and the verb in the sentence is εφανη.  This precludes the women (plural) as the subject.  Now come on:  in this context, when you hear the sentence, “Now rising early on the first day of the week, He appeared first to Mary Magdalene,” is there any doubt about who the subject is?    

14.  There are 18 distinct Greek words used in verses 9-20 that are found nowhere else in Mark’s gospel.  

● That sounds meaningful until one is informed that Mark 15:40-16:4 (another 12-verse passage) contains even more once-used words (as Bruce Terry has shown in a readily available essay).  Why didn’t Catoe tell his readers about this?  The answer, I suspect, is that Catoe absorbed this one-sided claim from MacArthur, who, in turn, got it from the one-sided comments by Bruce Metzger.

15.  In verse 19 the term “Lord Jesus” is used, although nowhere else in the book does Mark use this term to refer to Jesus.  

● Will Catoe be questioning the authenticity of Luke 24 next?  The term “Lord Jesus” similarly appears in the Gospel of Luke only once, in 24:3.

16.  The most compelling argument to the authenticity of verses 9-20 state [sic] that the ending of Mark’s book was lost or Mark was unable to complete the book due to persecution.  This is why verses 9-20 are present in the late manuscripts.

● Again Catoe attempts to convey that only “late manuscripts” support Mark 16:9-20, so again I point out that patristic writers in the 100’s support the passage, as well as early manuscripts such as A, C, D, and W, and versional evidence such as the Gothic version (350), the Peshitta (300’s), and the Latin Vulgate (383).    

17.  Scribes, wishing to complete the book, pulled information from the other gospels or outside sources and made their own edits.  

● Such a scenario only exists in a dream-world concocted by commentators, as I explain in Authentic:  The Case for Mark 16:9-20.  A scribe wishing to create an ending based on the other Gospel-accounts would naturally finish the scene that is left hanging in verse 8, following the narrative pattern found in Matthew 28, instead of restarting the narrative by restating the day and time, and by reintroducing Mary Magdalene.   

18.  Matthew, Luke, and John each record some form of Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances.  Compared to these other gospel narratives, one might conclude that Mark seems incomplete because he excludes any post-resurrection appearances of Jesus.  

● Only if one assumes that Mark intentionally stopped writing at the end of 16:8, with the phrase “for they were afraid.”  The incompleteness of such an abrupt stop is obvious not only when compared to the other Gospels, but also when considered alongside the specific predictions within the Gospel of Mark (in 14:28 and in 16:7) that Jesus will meet His disciples in Galilee. 

19.  Mark’s stated point is quite clear:  Jesus Christ is the Son of God.  

● Not when you depend heavily on Vaticanus and Sinaiticus, because Sinaiticus omits the phrase “Son of God” in Mark 1:1.  That is the primary reason why the words were not included in the text of the TNIV.

20.  The final verse says the women were “afraid.”  . . . . What an appropriate way for Mark to end his fast-paced gospel.  

● Such an ending is not even a little bit appropriate.  No matter how much Catoe, echoing MacArthur, insists that the emperor’s clothes are gorgeous, so to speak, the notion that the jarring and abrupt stoppage at 16:8 was intentional is flatly unrealistic – or, as Hort described it, “incredible.”  One could select the end of Mark 15:40, 16:4, 16:6, or 16:7 and similarly make a case that it is “the fitting ending” of the book.  But does anyone seriously entertain the idea that Mark knew Peter’s account of Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances to the disciples, but declined to include it in his narrative?  Do you really think that although Jesus’ post-resurrection appearances were an integral part of Peter’s preaching (as reported in Acts 10:40-42), Mark would consider them dispensable?  And who seriously thinks that although Mark knew that the woman proceeded to report to the disciples (as Matthew 28 says), he deliberately ended his account with a sentence that allows the reader to conclude that the women never told anyone about the angel’s message?       
  
          Now allow me to step away from this analysis, and approach a related subject with a pastoral and doctrinal focus.  Crosspoint Church’s website states that the church “wholeheartedly affirms the truthfulness and trustworthiness of Scripture (inerrancy and infallibility).”  I ask:  which Scripture?  The Byzantine Text that is represented by over 85% (or more) of the manuscripts, or the Alexandrian readings that are preserved in a smattering of manuscripts?  Usually one can pick either the Alexandrian Text or the Byzantine Text and obtain the same message, but at many points in the text – the ending of Mark being an obvious example – that is not the case.  At those points, they cannot both be considered the Word of God.     
          If you really prefer the Alexandrian Text, and believe that almost all of the manuscripts of the Gospels contain hundreds of translation-impacting readings that should not be there, then don’t stop with Mark 16:9-20, brothers.  If you really prefer the manuscripts that were stored in the best weather conditions (and which for that reason are the oldest), remove the story about the adulteress in John 7:53-8:11, as well as Jesus’ plea, “Father forgive them, for they know not what they do,” and the report in Luke 22:43-44 about Jesus’ bloody sweat.  Erase John 9:38.  Add the contradiction in the Alexandrian text of Matthew 27:49 which states that Jesus was speared before He died.  Tell your flock that Mark wrote that Isaiah wrote Malachi 3:1, and that Salome was Herod’s daughter.  Adopt the text of Codex Sinaiticus and change Matthew 13:35 to include the name “Isaiah.”   

          Yes, keep going down the path to which you have been pointed by Bruce Metzger (who did not affirm inerrancy, and whose Textual Commentary ascribes an error to Matthew on its very first page), Eberhard Nestle, and Kurt Aland (to say nothing of Hort), and it requires no gift of prophecy to foresee that your doctrine of inerrancy will be significantly eroded.  Go ahead and keep trusting the compilers of the Nestle-Aland text who have inserted readings into the text that are not found in any Greek manuscripts.  See how many passages of doctrinal significance will have their force nullified by brackets and footnotes. 

The latest edition of my e-book
about Mark 16:9-20.
          If you intend to continue to rely on the Nestle-Aland/United Bible Societies compilations, then prepare to answer the Bible-readers who are going to ask, “Why do we ascribe inerrancy to a text that is so undefined?”.  And if you intend to embrace the Alexandrian Text as you have done in the case of the ending of Mark, prepare to answer the Bible-readers who are going to ask, “Why do we ascribe inerrancy to an errant text?”.  

          The leaders of Crosspoint Church seem to have made a decision to “forgo the teaching of Mark 16:9-20” based on a one-sided (and often erroneous) misrepresentation of the relevant evidence.  So I encourage you, brothers  – Ken Lewis, Jeremy Chasteen, Mark Welborn, Matt Denton, Jason Smith, Jason Finley, and Josh Jones – to reconsider your decision.  I invite you to watch my three-part video response to MacArthur, upon whose inaccurate work Catoe relied.  And consider the data in my book, Authentic: The Case for Mark 16:9-20.  I will be glad to provide a free digital copy of it to any member of Crosspoint Church who writes to me and requests one.