Many champions of the King James Version emphasize that before the Reformation ever began, the Textus Receptus was the most widely used text throughout Christendom, and that this shows the fulfillment of a divine promise that God would preserve what he revealed in his word – both in terms of its promises (keeping his word), and in terms of its verbal expression – in each generation for his people. But this is wrong.
The
Textus Receptus – defined as the
Greek base-text of the 1611 Authorised Version – has over a thousand readings
that are not majority readings, and some readings in the TR (such as variants in Acts 9:5-6, Luke 2:22 and
Eph. 3:9) have very little valid manuscript support – none at all, in the case
of Acts 9:5-6. At such points, what is
printed in the Textus Receptus was
never the ordinary text of the ordinary church.
The
Westminster Confession of Faith has been used as the basis for regarding both
the Textus Receptus and the Byzantine
Text (which is very similar to the Textus
Receptus without its minority readings) as the New Testament in Greek that God, “by his singular care and providence kept pure in all ages.” “The text that the formulators affirmed was,
historically, the Textus Receptus. But we should be aware of how the Received
Text was received – as a somewhat fluid quantity. Consider, in selected segments, how the KJV’s
Preface The
Translators to the Reader describes various English translations that
includes Tyndale’s and the Geneva Bible:
Segment 1: “We do not deny, nay we affirm and avow, that the very meanest translation of the Bible in English, set forth by men of our profession, (for we have seen none of theirs of the whole Bible as yet) containeth the word of God, nay, is the word of God. As the King’s speech, which he uttereth in Parliament, being translated into French, Dutch, Italian, and Latin, is still the King’s speech, though it be not interpreted by every Translator with the like grace, nor peradventure so fitly for phrase, nor so expressly for sense, everywhere. For it is confessed, that things are to take their denomination of the greater part; and a natural man could say, Verum ubi multa nitent in carmine, non ego paucis offendor maculis, etc. A man may be counted a virtuous man, though he have made many slips in his life, (else, there were none virtuous, for in many things we offend all) [James 3:2] also a comely man and lovely, though he have some warts upon his hand, yea, not only freckles upon his face, but also scars.”
much more pure than impure. The KJV’s translators, though, must have understood that it did not need to be absolutely pure to be sufficiently pure enough to be considered the word of God, even with textual variations of the kind exhibited in the early English versions prior to 1611. So although, in Romans 12:11, Tyndale used a Greek text that differed from the KJV’s base-text, this did not disqualify Tyndale’s version - “Applye youre selves to ye tyme” – from being considered the word of God. Nor did his version of Acts 13:33 – in which Peter is depicted quoting from the first psalm, rather than the second – condemn Tyndale’s entire New Testament as something impure and unfit to use. Small variants – characterized as “warts,” and “freckles” and “scars” – even if they change the meaning of a sentence, were not thought to disqualify a text, provided that it was harmonious with the general message of the New Testament.
Segment 2: “No cause therefore why the word translated should be denied to be the word, or forbidden to be current, notwithstanding that some imperfections and blemishes may be noted in the setting forth of it. For what ever was perfect under the Sun, where Apostles or Apostolic men, that is, men endued with an extraordinary measure of God's spirit, and privileged with the privilege of infallibility, had not their hand?”
Again we see that “some imperfections and blemishes” in other versions of the New Testament made by Protestants did not disqualify them from being considered the word of God. If the KJV’s translators did not regard those features as fatal, why do KJV-Onlyists insist that deviations from the Textus Receptus are fatal? Particularly where the KJV echoes a minority reading, some deviations are improvements, resembling more accurately the text written by inspired authors.
Segment 3: “The like we are to think of Translations. The translation of the Seventy dissenteth from the Original in many places, neither doth it come near it, for perspicuity, gravity, majesty; yet which of the Apostles did condemn it? Condemn it? Nay, they used it, (as it is apparent, and as Saint Jerome and most learned men do confess) which they would not have done, nor by their example of using it, so grace and commend it to the Church, if it had been unworthy the appellation and name of the word of God.”
Thus the KJV’s Preface not only affirmed the historical reality of the Septuagint (that is the “translation of the Seventy” referred to), but even grant it status as the word of God in spite of obvious deviations in meaning from the original Hebrew text. The cry of “Ad Fontes” is thus balanced by the understanding that what the apostles used, the apostolic church may use also. When a modern translation such as the NET prefers a reading in the Septuagint over the Masoretic Text, it is not necessarily a disqualifying feature. (The Eastern Orthodox churches to this day appraise the Septuagint as their authoritative text, comparable to how Roman Catholics appraised the Vulgate as their canonical standard.) Rather than the novel and extreme all-or-nothing approach of KJV-Onlyists, the KJV’s translators subscribed to the belief that a degree of variation did not disqualify a translation.
| Available on Amazon |
7 comments:
I think you should also mention that the forward of very old KJV's state that the translators removed YHWH from the texts and replaced it with LORD in all caps. (see Ps 110:1 for a comparison) In later versions the notice was moved to a footnote at the bottom of the page where it is first done, Ge 2:4 i think. Then in even later versions the notice was removed altogether.
The significance is that God's name has been replaced with a title close to 7,000 times. God put His name there for mankind to see and read, and men had the arrogance to remove it.
Some make the pathetic argument that since we don't know for sure how the name was pronounced that it shouldn't be used. But that is no excuse not to leave YHWH in the text where God put it. Besides, ExpiditionBible on YouTube in his video "Searching for the earliest mention of the Israelite's God, "Yahweh."" shows an ancient Egyptian hieroglyph of Yahweh, which identifies how the name was pronounced back then.
And yes, Jehovah is the English translation for Yahweh, just like Jesus is the English translation for Yeshua. Yet no one has an issues with saying Jesus. The Devil's desire to erase God's name is pervasive.
Dave,
YHWH is rendered as "LORD" (all caps) out of reverence, not as a way to obscure what name by which he revealed himself. "YHWH" was presented very prominently at the top of the frontispiece of the 1611 KJV.
Blogger, do you really believe that? How does taking God's name away and replacing it with a neutral title that is also given to men show reverence? I ask you that, Blogger, because i don't think you have thought it through. God put His name there for a reason. Do the Bible translators think God made a mistake in having His name there? I await your reply Blogger.
(note: I refer to you as "Blogger" out of reverence)
@Dave What editions are you referring to and have you ever actually seen that? I have 1611 1st edition facsimiles and there is no such notice, footnote, or prefatory mention. The precedent to render the Tetragrammaton as LORD (or Lord, LORDE) was set long before the KJV in Wycliffe, Tyndale, Coverdale, Great Bible, Geneva, and the Bishops.
Dave, Yes; I do. But it is quite peripheral to the point of the post, isn't it.
When i was a teenager around 1980 i went to my local library and made photo copies of the pages in old KJV's about the YHWH to LORD change to show other people at the time who didn't know about it. That was decades ago and i have lost them, but all you have to do is look at all the places in the original Hebrew where the Tetragrammaton is and compare it to any KJV Bible to see that it was done.
Yes, other older Bibles have done the same, but that doesn't excuse it.
Many times in the Bible God gave Moses or some other prophet a message to tell to the people, and within that message He put His name. Do you think that the prophets removed God's name and put in LORD instead when they quoted God's message to the people? If they did, how do you think God would have reacted when the prophet misquoted Him? My guess is that He would have been as unhappy about it as He probably is with all the later translators who have done so.
You say this is "peripheral", but look at the first paragraph of your article:
"Many champions of the King James Version emphasize that before the Reformation ever began, the Textus Receptus was the most widely used text throughout Christendom, and that this shows the fulfillment of a divine promise that God would preserve what he revealed in his word – both in terms of its promises (keeping his word), and in terms of its verbal expression – in each generation for his people. But this is wrong."
You say their argument is "wrong", but you don't point out the glaring fact that if God was truly preserving His word with that Bible, it wouldn't have deleted His name nearly 7k times. Wouldn't that have been a good (and easily proven) argument as to why they are wrong?
The author makes several misleading claims. Here is the logical and historical counter‑argument.
1. “The TR has over 1,000 non‑majority readings” – so what?
The Byzantine Majority Text is a statistical construct, not a providentially preserved text. The TR often follows the earliest Byzantine witnesses (e.g., Codex A, family 35) and readings found in the Old Latin and Syriac – translations from the 2nd‑3rd centuries. Many “minority” TR readings are actually ancient and widespread outside the Greek tradition. The promise of preservation (Psalm 12:6-7; Matthew 24:35) means God kept His Word accessible to His church, not that a mathematical majority vote determines originality. The TR was the text used by Greek-speaking churches for over 1,000 years – that is undeniable historical fact.
2. The KJV translators’ preface does not support modern eclectic versions.
The author quotes “warts and freckles” but misses the context. Those imperfections referred to translation differences among Protestant English Bibles (Tyndale, Geneva), not to the underlying Greek text. The KJV translators deliberately revised those versions to agree with the Textus Receptus. They never endorsed the Alexandrian text (Vaticanus, Sinaiticus) – the basis of the NIV, ESV, etc. Their tolerance of minor English renderings does not mean they would accept a radically different Greek base‑text that omits Mark 16:9-20, John 7:53-8:11, or 1 John 5:7. In fact, they included all those passages. The preface actually defends using multiple translations of the same Greek text – not switching to a different manuscript family.
3. The Septuagint argument backfires.
The apostles used the Septuagint because it was the common Greek Bible of their day. But the Septuagint was not their final authority – they often quoted it loosely and sometimes corrected it to match the Hebrew. The KJV translators praised the Septuagint as containing “the word of God” in a broad sense (the message), but they never made it their standard for correcting the Hebrew Old Testament. Similarly, the TR is the standard for the Greek New Testament. Modern versions that replace TR readings with Alexandrian variants (e.g., removing Mark 16:9-20) are not analogous to the Septuagint – they delete entire passages that the historic church always received. The apostles never omitted divinely inspired text; modern critics do.
4. “Other Byzantine translations exist” – that doesn’t refute historic preservation.
The NKJV, EMTV, World English Bible, etc., use the same TR/Byzantine base. Many KJV advocates welcome them as useful updates. The real issue is not the KJV’s English but the Greek text family: do we trust the text the historic church used (Byzantine/TR) or the one dug up from Egyptian tombs (Alexandrian)? The author claims KJV‑Onlyism is “not justifiable,” but that ignores overwhelming evidence: the Byzantine text is more consistent, smoother, and matches 95%+ of all Greek manuscripts. The critical text relies on Vaticanus and Sinaiticus – two manuscripts that disagree with each other over 3,000 times in the Gospels alone. Which is more “pure”? The TR’s so‑called minority readings are often supported by ancient versions and fathers. The burden of proof is on the critic to explain why God would hide His true text in a desert monastery for 1,500 years while the churches used the TR.
Conclusion
The article misrepresents the KJV translators, overstates TR’s non‑majority readings, and ignores the doctrine of preservation. The Textus Receptus remains the faithful New Testament text of the historic church. KJV‑Onlyism, properly understood as confidence in the Byzantine tradition, is both biblically and historically defensible.
Post a Comment