Perhaps
there is no textual contest anywhere in the New Testament in which the internal
evidence and external evidence point more strongly to opposite conclusions than
in John 7:8. In the vast majority of
manuscripts, when Jesus’ unbelieving brothers invite Jesus to show Himself to
the world and go with them to the Feast of Tabernacles at Jerusalem, Jesus
replies, “You go up to this feast. I am
not yet going up to this feast, for My time has not yet fully come.”
In a small
group of manuscripts that includes Papyrus 75, Codex Vaticanus, and codices L,
N, and W, Jesus’ statement is similar, but the first occurrence of the word
“this” is absent, yielding the statement, “You go up to the feast. I am not yet going up to this feast, for My
time has not yet fully come.”
In another small group of manuscripts,
including Codex Sinaiticus, Jesus’ statement is, “You go up to this feast. I am not going up to this feast, for My time
has not yet fully come.”
In yet
another small group of manuscripts (33 565 579 664 2193 – mostly members of f1
– the phrase “I am not going up to this feast” is absent, yielding the
statement, “You go up to this feast, for My time has not yet fully come.”
And in
minuscule 69 (Codex Leicestrensis), the second occurrence of “to this feast” is
absent, yielding the statement, “You go up to the feast. I am not yet going, for My time has not yet
fully come.”
We
may set aside the reading in 69 as the symptom of a scribe’s dislike of what he
perceived to be superfluous repetition.
Similarly, the reading in 33 565 579 664 2193 may be set aside as either the
result of parableptic error – when a scribe’s line of sight drifted from either
the end of εορτην (“feast”) or the
end of ταύτην (“this”) to the end of
εορτην ταύτην further along in the
verse, accidentally omitting the letters in between – or an early copyist’s
ruthless attempt to avoid a perceived difficulty.
The
contest between the presence, or absence, of ταύτην in the first part of the
verse is more difficult, because while its absence is attributable to haplography
(from the –την at the end of εορτην to the -την at the end of ταύτην), such an
error would either have to be extremely early, or would have to occur
independently in more than one transmission-line, in order to show up, as it
does, in manuscripts as diverse as Papyrus 75, Codex D, Codex N, Codex Π, Codex
W, and 1424. Yet it appears in Codex À, and
in the vast majority of Greek manuscripts, and was likely in the ancestry of 33
565 579 664 2193. It is also supported by the
Peshitta.
However,
harmonistic considerations seem to have not affected the scribes of codices K,
M, and Π here; all three read οuκ. It may be helpful to step back and look at
the external evidence for each reading:
οuκ: À D K M Π 1071 1241, with versional support from the
Vulgate, the Sinaitic Syriac and Curetonian Syriac, the Armenian version, the
Ethiopic version, several Old Latin copies (including a, aur, b, c,
d, e, ff2), and with patristic support from Epiphanius
(in Panarion, Book 2, 25:4), Chrysostom (Homily 48 on John), Cyril
of Alexandria (Comm. John 4:5), Ambrosiaster (Question 78 in his Questions
on the Old and New Testaments), and Augustine (in Sermon 83)
– plus a comment from Jerome (in Against
the Pelagians Book 2, part 17) which implies that Porphyry
– a heathen critic of the Gospels in the third century – used the text with οuκ as
evidence that Jesus displayed fickleness and therefore was not divine: “Jesus said that He would not go up, and then
did what He had previously said He would not do.
Porphyry rants and accuses Him of inconsistency and indecisiveness, not
knowing that all scandals must be imputed to the flesh.” (By this last phrase,
Jerome seems to mean that if a passage seems problematic or puzzling to a
reader, the problem is not in the text, but in the reader’s lack of illumination.)
The
UBS apparatus also lists a few lectionaries that read οuκ
here: lectionaries 672 (an uncial
lectionary from the 800s), 673, 813 (from the 900s), 950, and 1223.
οupw: Papyrus 66, Papyrus 75, B E F G H L N T U W Γ Δ Θ Ψ 0105
0141 0250 (Codex
Climaci Rescriptus) Δ f1
f13 157 205 700 892 1424 Byz with
versional support from the Peshitta Sahidic and Palestinian Aramaic versions.
Wayne C. Kannaday offers
a detailed analysis of this textual contest on pages 90-97 of his 2004 book Apologetic
Discourse and the Scribal Tradition.
Kannaday concludes that οuκ is probably the original
reading, largely on the grounds that when the term οupw is used in the Gospel of John, it is used
formulaically to refer to Jesus’ hour, or time, i.e., the time of His passion:
●
2:4: “My hour has not yet come.”
● 7:6: “My time has not yet come.”
● 7:8b: “My time has not yet fully come.”
● 7:6: “My time has not yet come.”
● 7:8b: “My time has not yet fully come.”
●
7:30: “His hour had not yet come.”
●
8:20: “His hour had not yet come.”
If οupw is original, Kannaday argues, then “nowhere
else does οupw invade the prefacing remarks of Jesus,”
leading to the question, “Is this the only instance in John’s narrative where
he violates an otherwise carefully prescribed and consistent use of the term οupw?”
However,
the idea that John deliberately limited his use of οupw to refer to Jesus’ hour, or time, does not
survive close scrutiny. As evidence, one
can simply read the following passages (using here, for convenience, the NA/UBS
text):
●
3:24: “For John had not yet been thrown into prison.”
●
6:17: “Jesus had not yet come to them.”
●
7:39: “The Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet
glorified.” (In the NA/UBS text, the
term οupw is used for the first “yet” but the term
ουδέπω is used for the second “yet.”)
●
8:57: “You are not yet fifty years old.”
●
11:30: “Now Jesus had not yet come into the town.”
●
20:17: “I have not yet ascended to My Father.”
When
all of John’s utilizations of οupw are
in view, and there is no cherry-picking, the case that John’s use of οupw is limited in a “carefully prescribed and
consistent” manner that refers to Jesus’ hour, or time, fades to dust; there
simply is no such unique utilization of the term.
However,
the question remains: it is easy to
posit a reason why a scribe would change οuκ to οupw: to avoid the appearance of precisely the sort
of fickleness that Porphyry accused Jesus of displaying. But why would anyone change οupw (“not
yet”) to οuκ
(“not”)?
In the
search for an answer, we should notice that this is not the only example of a
textual contest involving οupw.
In Matthew
15:17, the verse begins with οὐ in manuscripts B, D, Z, Θ, 565 33 and 579, and
this is supported by Latin, Syriac, and Coptic versions. In most manuscripts, however, including À C L
W (with some Latin and Bohairic support), the verse begins with ουπω. Here there is no apologetic motive to alter
the text; yet it must have been altered, one way or the other.
In Matthew
16:9, the reading ουπω has overwhelming support, not only from Byzantine
manuscripts but also from B À D Δ etc. Yet in family 13, the verse begins with ου.
In Mark
4:40, a small but strong array of witnesses (including B À D L
Δ f1
f13)
supports ουπε before εχετε πίστιν. In
most manuscripts, however (including A C K M Π, supported by the Peshitta and
the Gothic version), the question at the end of the verse is πως ουκ εχετε
πίστιν.
In Mark
8:21, Codex B reads ου νοειτε, and the Byzantine Text reads ου συνίετε – but À A C L D K M N Π W Q support
(sometimes with minor orthographic variation) ουπω συνίετε. (This is a parallel-passage to Mt. 16:9.)
In Mark 11:2, the Byzantine Text, allied with D M Q 157 565 f1 does not include the word ουπω (conveying simply that no man had sat on the colt, rather than that no man had yet sat on the colt). But in various early manuscripts, the word ουπω is present, either before or after ανθρώπων (“man”) – B L Δ Ψ have ουπω before ανθρώπων; À, C, 579, and f13 have ουπω after ανθρώπων; Y K Π have ουπω before ουδεις ανθρώπων. Minuscule 1424 rearranges the words so as to read ουδεις ανθρώπων εκάθισεν ουπω. (Codex A, meanwhile, reads πώποτε ανθρώπων, harmonizing to Luke 19:30.)
In Mark 11:2, the Byzantine Text, allied with D M Q 157 565 f1 does not include the word ουπω (conveying simply that no man had sat on the colt, rather than that no man had yet sat on the colt). But in various early manuscripts, the word ουπω is present, either before or after ανθρώπων (“man”) – B L Δ Ψ have ουπω before ανθρώπων; À, C, 579, and f13 have ουπω after ανθρώπων; Y K Π have ουπω before ουδεις ανθρώπων. Minuscule 1424 rearranges the words so as to read ουδεις ανθρώπων εκάθισεν ουπω. (Codex A, meanwhile, reads πώποτε ανθρώπων, harmonizing to Luke 19:30.)
In Luke
23:53, where Luke mentions that Joseph of Arimathea’s tomb was completely
unused, Papyrus 75 and Codices B, A, L, 118, and 579 read ουπω – so as to say
that no one had yet lain in the
tomb. But they are challenged by a
diverse combination of witnesses that includes À C D K M W Q Π
157 f13.which
all support ουδέτω – so as to say that never
had anyone lain in the tomb. The
Byzantine Text (along with Δ 700 1424 is aligned with the latter group,
disagreeing only in word-order (by placing ουδέτω before, rather than after,
ουδεις).
In John
6:17, Papyrus 75 and codices B, À, D, L, N, W and Ψ contain a statement that Jesus had
not yet (ουπω) come to the disciples. In
most manuscripts, however, including A K M Δ Θ f1 157 565
700, the verse has ουκ instead of ουπω.
Here we see a disagreement similar to what we see in John 7:8: ουκ versus ουπω.
In John
7:6, where almost all manuscripts read ουπω, À reads ου, and W reads
ουδέτω. Ουδέτω is also the reading of
Papyrus 66 in John 7:8b, where the
rest of the manuscripts support ουπω. Likewise
in John 7:30, P66 reads ουδέτω where the other manuscripts read ουπω. This raises a question: ουπω is clear and unobjectionable; why would
anyone change it to ου as the scribe of Sinaiticus did, or change it to ουδέτω
as the scribe of P66 did twice? And why, if ουπω is original in Luke 23:53,
does the Byzantine Text and its assorted allies read ουδέτω?
Briefly leaving
the text of the Gospels, for thoroughness’ sake, we find that in First
Corinthians 8:2, the reading ουπω is supported by Papyrus 46, B À A 33
1175 1739, but it has rivals; ουδέτω is read by D (i.e., Claromontanus) F G Ψ,
ουδεν is read by 68 330 2400, ουδεν ουδέτω is read by 1424, and ουδέτω ουδεν is
read by most manuscripts. In Philippians
3:13, where P46, B, 1739, 1881, the Byzantine Text, and the Peshitta support
ου, À
A 075 33 81 614 and 1175 support ουπω instead.
Here too, then, is another contest between ου and ουπω. And in Revelation 17:12, where most copies
read ουπω, Codex A and minuscule 57 read ουκ.
Taking all
this into consideration, it suggests that some scribes either added ουπω or
substituted a different word where ουπω
belonged, not only in John 7:8, but also in Matthew 15:17, Matthew 16:9,
Mark 4:40, Luke 23:53, John 6:17, and John 7:6 – plus three passages outside
the Gospels (I Cor. 8:2, Phil. 3:13, Rev. 17:12). If ουκ was introduced in John 7:8, as a
substitute for ουπω, it is possible that this was elicited not by
mischievousness, but by the same factor (whatever it was) that elicited the
scribe of Sinaiticus to introduce ουκ into the text of John 7:6 instead of ουπω
– and for the same reason that ουπω was not added to Mark 11:2 by Byzantine
scribes, and for the same reason that the Byzantine Text reads ουκ instead of
ουπω in John 6:17.
However,
the specific nature of such a factor is difficult to nail down. The least complicated idea, I think, is that (a) an early Latin translator rendered
the relevant phrase as ego non ascendo ad
diem festum, imagining that the reference to that particular festival-day
would not preclude Jesus’ future attendance, and thus imply “yet.” – and (b) subsequently the Greek text was
adjusted slightly (from ουπω to ουκ) to conform to the Latin parallel.
If
Codex Bezae alone supported ουκ, or even if D and À (which has Western
affinities in this portion of John) and Old Latin copies supported ουκ, that
would be an adequate explanation. But
the external evidence for ουκ, though sparse in our extant manuscripts, is
broader and weightier than it may first appear:
besides À
(very probably made in Caesarea) and D (provenance unknown), we should posit an
ancestor of family Π, and the base-text of the Vulgate, plus the Sinaitic
Syriac and Curetonian Syriac, the base-text of the Armenian version, several
Old Latin copies, and copies known to Epiphanius
in Crete, copies read by Chrysostom
in Antioch and/or Constantinople, copies used by Cyril of Alexandria, the Latin
text used by Ambrosiaster, the text used by Augustine in North Africa, and the
text used by Porphyry. This
is wide-ranging evidence that cannot be cavalierly dismissed.
Another
consideration in favor of ουκ is that orthodox copyists, facing one exemplar
with ουκ and another exemplar with ουπω, would naturally prefer ουπω as the
reading less likely to elicit misunderstandings of the sort that Porphyry had
displayed.
In
conclusion: the external evidence in
favor of ουπω is so abundant that compilers and translators should maintain a
footnote at John 7:8 mentioning this reading, especially in light of the
possibility that new evidence might come to light which accounts for interchanges
between ουκ and ουπω as merely linguistic phenomena. However, barring such a development, internal
evidence strongly favors ουκ as the reading more likely to elicit ουπω, rather
than the other way around, and this consideration is so weighty that even the
testimony of two early papyri, Codex Sinaiticus, and over 1,500 Byzantine
manuscripts cannot balance it; ουκ demands its place in the text.
This raises
a fresh question: was Porphyry right? Many a defender of the traditional text, or
of the KJV, has proposed that to adopt the reading ουκ is to turn Jesus into a
liar, on the grounds that Jesus says in verse 8 that He is not going to the
feast, and yet, two verses later, He goes.
Technically, resolving this perceived difficulty is outside the purview
of textual criticism; nevertheless, as an example of how the problem is
resolved, with ουκ, readers may consult this video from CIRA
International, this
essay from Apologetics Press, or simply observe that within those two verses –
that is, between Jesus’ statement, “I am not going up to this feast” and John’s
record that Jesus went up to the feast – some time has elapsed, and the
situation has changed: it is true that
Jesus was not going up when He said that He was not going up, when it would have involved too much publicity. What more needs to be said? The sentence is more perspicuous with ουπω,
but that does not make the reading with ουκ incorrect, as if “I am not
going” must mean “I am never going.”
There is an
extra takeaway to consider before we leave this variant-unit. The non-Western uncials K M Π, which read
ουκ, must preserve a text here that was remarkably resistant to assimilation
from competing texts – more resistant than most representatives of the Alexandrian Text, and more resistant than most representatives of the more popular Byzantine transmission-lines. This implies that the earliest stratum of family Π,
particularly when it diverges from rival Alexandrian and Byzantine readings, is
especially important.
Readers are invited to double-check the data in this post.
Readers are invited to double-check the data in this post.
9 comments:
Hello, what do you think is the good reading of John 14.14
εαν τι αιτησητε με εν τω ονοματι μου τουτο ποιησω
εαν τι αιτησητε εν τω ονοματι μου τουτο ποιησω
?
ProEcclessia,
I'd say that the ME is the result of an early haplographic error, elicited when a scribe's line of sight drifted momentarily to the following verse.
This is how textual criticism is supposed to work: amassing enough evidence to account for the variant, and then following it wherever it leads us. I hope this will be the end of people accusing you of never liking a variant that isn't the Byzantine reading.
Finally I have closure on this text and the real issues involved. I am comfortable with your explanations James. Thanks for the great research. Good work!
How much do we know about Porphyry's text?
First I wanted to thank you for the article and to let you know about a typo. Within the 10th paragraph (which begins with "οuκ:") it says "He had previous said He would no do." I assume it is meant to say "He had previous said He would not do. "
I hypothesize that Christ did intend to tell his brothers that he was NOT going to this festival when he in fact was going to go. Christ had misled others before. (compare Mt 22:16-22 with Mt 17:24-27) When quoting the commandments at Mt 19:18 he said "you must not bear false witness." When he told his brothers that he was not going, though he did intend to go, he did not testify falsely against another, therefore he did not sin. Nor did he lie to a fellow believer (Zech 8:16; Col 3:9) for his brothers were not believers. (John 7:5)
After we are told that his brothers were non-believers, the next words are "therefore" he said to them... Why is "therefore" used? To show that Christ's next words were BECAUSE they did not believe in him. (John 7:6-8) Within those words is his statement that he would not be going to this festival. He said that because they did not believe in him and he probably did not trust them not to turn him over to the Jews.(John 7:11) So he wanted to keep it a secret from his brothers that he was going to the festival. Saying 'I am not YET going' tells them that he IS going.
"However", after his brothers went up to the festival he also went. (John 7:10) "However" is used here to show that he was acting in contradiction to what he had told his brothers. If Christ had said that he was 'not yet' going to the festival, the word "however" would not fit, unless the term "yet" applied to a specific time period and he went to the festival before that time period was up.
Deception is not always something God is opposed to. (1 Kings 22:19-23)
Examples of some who lied:
Sarah (Genesis 18:12, 15)
Jacob (Genesis 27:19, 24)
Rachael (Genesis 31:35)
Midwives (Exodus 1:19, 20) "Therefore God dealt well with the midwives"
Aaron (Exodus 32:24)
Rahab (Joshua 2:4-6) she was protected for doing so (Joshua 6:17)
Jeremiah (Jeremiah 38:27)
Peter (Matthew 26:69-74; Mark 14:67-71; Luke 22:56-60; John 18:25-27)
Paul (Acts 9:7, 22:9) I think Paul lied to protect the other men from being summoned and "interrogated". (Acts 22:24-25)
Paul (Acts 23:6)
:^)
Dane
Dane,
Thanks; the typographical error is corrected.
DAVE commented, "I hypothesize that Christ did intend to tell his brothers that he was NOT going to this festival when he in fact was going to go. Christ had misled others before. (compare Mt 22:16-22 with Mt 17:24-27) When quoting the commandments at Mt 19:18 he said "you must not bear false witness." When he told his brothers that he was not going, though he did intend to go, he did not testify falsely against another, therefore he did not sin. Nor did he lie to a fellow believer (Zech 8:16; Col 3:9) for his brothers were not believers. (John 7:5)"
While true that his familial brothers did not believe who he claimed to be so were "unbelievers in him" in that sense, nevertheless they were his fellow Jews who were believers in, and followers of, the Law given through Moses.
As Lev. 19:11 ("‘You shall not steal, nor deal falsely, nor lie to one another'....") establishes, and as Zech. 8:16 ("Speak each man the truth to his neighbor") affirms, the Law prohibited not only bearing false witness against fellow Jews but also prohibited lying to fellow Jews.
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