If you read Mark 1:41
in an NIV printed before 2011, and in an NIV made after 2011, you will find two
different statements. The
early editions of the NIV say that when a leper approached Jesus seeking to be
healed, Jesus was “filled with compassion.”
In 2011, the NIV was revised in order to adopt many of the changes that
had been introduced in the discontinued TNIV.
Among those changes was the introduction of a different form of Mark
1:41 which states that Jesus, rather than feeling compassion, became “indignant,”
that is, angry.
Mark 1:38-42 in Greek in Codex Bezae (D). (Verse-numbers and highlight added.) |
The reason why the compilers of the NIV’s base-text have rejected
the variant that is supported by over 99.99% of the external evidence runs as
follows: copyists were more likely to
adjust the text to relieve difficulties, rather than to introduce difficulties. Codex Bezae’s textual variant in Mark 1:41 is
more difficult than its rival, and therefore (it is claimed), it should be preferred. A typical defense of οργισθεις is built on
and around this question: Which is more likely: that scribes would be puzzled by “filled with
compassion” and would replace it with “angry,” or that scribes would be puzzled
by “angry” and would replace it with “filled with compassion”? And there the question is left, as if this
consideration tips the scales.
Mark 1:38ff. in Latin in Codex Bezae (d). Iratus (angry) is highlighted. |
There is, however, more to the story.
First, another question should be asked: if early copyists encountered οργισθεις in
their exemplars and thought it was so problematic that it must be changed, then
why did they replace it with σπλαγχνισθεις instead of simply omitting the
word? In the parallel-passages in
Matthew 8:2-3 and Luke 5:12-13, there is no mention of Jesus becoming filled
with compassion. If a reckless copyist
was profoundly puzzled by an exemplar of Mark which read οργισθεις in Mark 1:41 , his natural reaction would be to harmonize
the verse to the parallel-passages by making a simple excision. Yet instead of a finding a harmonistic
omission, we see σπλαγχνισθεις dominating every
Greek transmission-stream, with the exception of Codex Bezae and a few
manuscripts which, as a result of harmonization, do not have σπλαγχνισθεις or
οργισθεις. (Minuscule 1358, which has
been erroneously cited as support for οργισθεις, is one such manuscript. According to Jeff Cate, the only Greek
manuscripts which are known to display neither σπλαγχνισθεις nor οργισθεις in
Mark 1:41 are minuscules 169, 505, 508, 1358, and lectionary 866. In minuscule 783, an entire line was skipped
at the beginning of Mark 1:41, but the error was corrected; σπλαγχνισθεις
εκτεινας την χειρα αυτου appears in the margin.)
Second, we do not encounter a consistent aversion, on the part of copyists, to the notion of Jesus being angry. In the same manuscript in which we find οργισθεις in Mark 1:41, we even find a harmonization in which Jesus’ anger is emphasized: in Codex Bezae, the text of Luke 6:10 is supplemented with the words εν οργη, that is, in anger, transplanted from Mark 3:5. When we consider passages such as Mark 9:19 (where Jesus expresses exasperation), and Mark 10:14 (where Jesus is greatly displeased with His disciples’ actions), and Mark 14:6 (where Jesus curtly corrects His disciples), there is not much evidence to justify the theory that early copyists of the Gospel of Mark were averse to depictions of Jesus’ anger.
Second, we do not encounter a consistent aversion, on the part of copyists, to the notion of Jesus being angry. In the same manuscript in which we find οργισθεις in Mark 1:41, we even find a harmonization in which Jesus’ anger is emphasized: in Codex Bezae, the text of Luke 6:10 is supplemented with the words εν οργη, that is, in anger, transplanted from Mark 3:5. When we consider passages such as Mark 9:19 (where Jesus expresses exasperation), and Mark 10:14 (where Jesus is greatly displeased with His disciples’ actions), and Mark 14:6 (where Jesus curtly corrects His disciples), there is not much evidence to justify the theory that early copyists of the Gospel of Mark were averse to depictions of Jesus’ anger.
Third, a demonstrable scribal mechanism – one for which
there is abundant evidence – accounts for οργισθεις as a creation of a
copyist. As we stand in the vestibule of
that subject, let’s ask a question: how
could anyone, in the course of translating the Gospel of Mark into Latin, start
with σπλαγχνισθεις and end up with iratus
(in anger) rather than misertus (in pity)? Two theories have
been proposed which argue that this happened due to a careless mistake.
In the first theory, the Latin text read, Is [i.e., Iesus, contracted as a sacred name] autem miseratus eius, and a copyist accidentally wrote “M” only
once instead of twice, producing Is
autem is eratus eius. A subsequent
copyist, interpreting the second occurrence of is as a superfluous repetition of Jesus’ contracted name,
removed it, thus producing the sentence, Is
autem eratus eius, and the shift from eratus
to iratus was then merely a matter of
orthography.
In the second theory (proposed in 1891 by J. Rendel Harris),
the Latin text in Codex Bezae descended from a Latin translation which rendered
σπλαγχνισθεις by the ambiguous Latin term motus,
as if to say that Jesus was “stirred” or “moved.” This ambiguous term was subsequently replaced,
sometimes by misertus and sometimes –
erroneously – by iratus. Harris proceeded to propose that the Greek
text in Codex Bezae was conformed to the Latin text alongside it, and that this
phenomenon of retro-translation from Latin into Greek is the mechanism that
produced the reading οργισθεις.
Harris was partly right.
As we proceed to a third (and simpler) explanation of the origin of
οργισθεις, it will be worthwhile to notice some examples of the influence of
the Latin text of Codex Bezae upon its Greek text.
In his 1891 article, A Study of Codex Bezae, published in Texts &
Studies, Harris gave many examples of Latinization in this manuscript’s
Greek text. I will review a few of the many Latinizations that occur in Codex
Bezae in the Gospel of Mark.
● Mark 1:10 – The usual reading σχιζομενους (torn) is replaced by ηνυγμενους (opened), based on the Latin apertos (opened).
● Mark 1:33 – The word αυτον is added, based on the Latin eius.
● Mark 1:38 – The usual reading εχομενας κωμοπολεις (neighboring towns) is replaced by ενγυς
κωμας και εις τας πολεις, a loose harmonization to Matthew 9:35, based on the
Latin proximos vicos et civitates (nearby towns and cities).
● Mark 2:25 – Codex D adds οντες (were) at the end of the verse, to correspond to the Latin erant (were).
● Mark 3:5a – Instead of the usual reading πωρωσει (hardness),
Codex Bezae reads νεκρωσει (deadness), based on the Latin emortua.
● Mark 3:5b – Codex Bezae ends the verse with ευθεως (immediately), based on the Latin statim (immediately).
● Mark 3:6 – Codex Bezae, instead of stating that the
Pharisees took counsel (εποιουν, the
Byzantine reading), or that the Pharisees gave
counsel (εδιδουν, the reading of B L 565 and a smattering of other manuscripts),
says that they undertook counsel
(ποιουντες), corresponding to the Latin faciebant.
● Mark 6:20 – Codex Bezae adds the word ειναι (to be) at the end of the verse,
corresponding to the Latin esse (to be).
● Mark 6:39 – where the usual text is συμποσια συμποσια (group by group), the Latin text here is secundum contubernia (according to groups), and accordingly
the Greek text in Codex Bezae is κατα την συμποσιαν. This is manifestly a Greek translation of the
Latin translation.
● Mark 7:25 – The usual Greek text has no conjunction,
stating that the woman, having arrived, fell at Jesus’ feet. But in Codex Bezae, the word και (and) has been added, expressing the word
et that is found in the Latin text.
Mark 8:1-2a in Codex Bezae. "TOUTOU" (in the yellow rectangle) was added to correspond to the Latin parallel. |
● Mark 10:16 – Mark uses the words Και εναγκαλισαμεος αυτα
to describe how Jesus took the children in His arms. The Latin text of Codex Bezae, however, has
something very different, as if the Latin translator misconstrued the meaning
of εναγκαλισαμεος: Et convocans eos (“And He summoned them,” or, “And He called them
together”). Accordingly, the Greek text
in Codex Bezae has been altered to mean what the Latin mistranslation
means: instead of εναγκαλισαμεος Codex
Bezae reads προσκαλεσαμενος.
Here in Mark 10:16 we have a situation that is very similar
to the one we encounter in Mark 1:41:
● Codex Bezae has a reading that no other Greek manuscript has.
● Codex Bezae has a reading that no other Greek manuscript has.
● Codex Bezae’s unique Greek reading agrees with its Latin
text.
● A relatively rare word is involved.
● The second half of the Greek word in Codex Bezae resembles
the second half of the word that is usually found.
I propose that the phenomenon observed in 10:16 is also at work in 1:41 . An early
translator, in the course of translating the Greek text of Mark into Latin, was
puzzled by the term σπλαγχνισθεις – at least, at its first occurrence in Mark. This is understandable, inasmuch as if one
were to dissect the word in search of its meaning, one might conclude that it
meant that Jesus was “gut-wrenched,” or that he “reacted viscerally.” As the translator read the
surrounding verses for further insight, he found in verse 43 that Jesus gave
the healed man a strict order. So the
translator concluded that in this context, σπλαγχνισθεις meant “deeply moved” and
that this could validly be rendered into Latin by iratus – dismayed, perturbed, angry.
With iratus thus entering the Old Latin transmission-stream, it was almost inevitable that when Greek-Latin codices were made, someone who was more familiar with the Latin text than with the Greek text would adjust the Greek text of Mark 1:41 in order to make it agree with the Latin text. The result is what we observe in Codex Bezae.
With iratus thus entering the Old Latin transmission-stream, it was almost inevitable that when Greek-Latin codices were made, someone who was more familiar with the Latin text than with the Greek text would adjust the Greek text of Mark 1:41 in order to make it agree with the Latin text. The result is what we observe in Codex Bezae.
Matthew 10:42 in Codex Bezae. The yellow rectangle contains the Greek word for "water" (a retro-translation of the Latin translation). |
When one sifts through commentaries and articles about Mark
1:41, it is not easy to find any that mention
Codex Bezae’s Latin-based variants. The authors are, it seems, either unaware of this highly
relevant feature of the Greek text in Codex Bezae, or they are afraid to
mention it. Numerous prominent writers
and commentators, such as Daniel Wallace, Bart Ehrman, Bill Mounce, Mark Strauss, Ben
Witherington, N. T. Wright, and Douglas Moo, have kept this feature of the
manuscript (which explains many of its anomalies, including its unique reading
in Mark 1:41) a tightly guarded secret.
Not one of them, as far as I can tell, has ever mentioned it in any
discussion of Mark 1:41. If it seems as
if there has been some momentum among commentators to prefer the Latinized variant
in Mark 1:41, using the excuse that they are preferring the variant that
explains its rivals, or that they are preferring the more difficult reading,
perhaps it is because there is momentum among commentators to lose touch with (or
to never become acquainted with) the special characteristics of the relevant
evidence.
I appeal to the producers and distributors of the NIV, the
NIRV, the CEB, and the ERV to remedy the unfortunate (and, very probably, under-informed)
decision that the compilers of their New Testament base-text made in Mark 1:41 .
In the meantime, I encourage Bible-readers to detour around those
versions, if better options are available, as long as they contain such a prominent mistake that conveys a
meaning that is contrary to the meaning of the original text.
[The New International Version and New International Reader’s Version are trademarks ® and © 2011 by Biblica, Inc. Used by permission. All rights reserved worldwide.]
[The New International Version and New International Reader’s Version are trademarks ® and © 2011 by Biblica, Inc. Used by permission. All rights reserved worldwide.]
19 comments:
Thanks James,
Granted that Bezae Greek and Bezae Latin are in agreement, how do you prove the direction of influence from Latin to Greek?
James,
Thanks indeed! This does indeed seem to be a case where knowledge of the manuscript directly affects the textual decision. Knowledge of the individual manuscripts seems more frequently to take a back seat to other criteria, much to our detriment I believe.
Peter,
Does not the discussion above make a reasonable case for the Latin influencing the Greek, especially since Bezae is a Greek-'Latin edition and all other manuscripts with anger are Latin. This is particularly true since minuscule 1358 does not actually read anger or compassion. (See Cate 2011, Bulletin of the Ancient Biblical Center)
Tim
James,
I noticed your compliant about Wallace above, however, he was the Editor of the NET Bible New Testament and the reading in Mark 1:41 is compassion.
Tim
Archepoimenfollower,
If you consult Wallace's 2006 post at https://bible.org/article/gospel-according-bart you will see his statement, regarding ORGISQEIS, that "At this stage I am inclined to think it is most likely original."
JW:
The cruncher as Professor Head's Brits would say for Ehrman:
http://rosetta.reltech.org/TC/v05/Ehrman2000a.html
is that GMatthew and GLuke exorcise the offending word. Ehrman righteously points out that they always edit GMark's angry Jesus but never his compassionate one. Related to this is Ehrman's observation that the extant offending word is relatively late by Text Critic standards (Vaticanus/Sinaiticus) compared to authorship date of GMatthew/GLuke.
Ehrman's primary Textual Criticism criteria is a minimum of quality evidence and the The Difficult Reading Principle.
The one who has written the book, so to speak, on the subject is:
The "Western" Text of Mark 1:41: A Case for the Angry Jesus"
Mark Alan Proctor
https://books.google.com/books/about/The_Western_Text_of_Mark_1_41.html?id=EmPctgAACAAJ
690 pages! I have faith that in a book that size the author has identified related Patristic evidence, which presumably he thinks supports "angry".
Finally, a corollary to Professor Head's comment. The Retro theory can just as easily explain how "compassionate" was added to the Greek text
Joseph
You have a lot of faith if you believe the size of a book is an indication of intellectual quality and research thoroughness.
Joe Wallack,
If you sift through the post to Bart Ehrman's name, you will see that an embedded link leads to the same material you mention. It's not as if this has not been taken into consideration. I would counter that Matthew stresses Jesus' compassion elsewhere, and didn't want to overdo it, and that Luke tends to downplay Jesus' emotions in general.
JW: "Ehrman's primary Textual Criticism criteria is a minimum of quality evidence and the The Difficult Reading Principle."
As I explain in the post, the appeal to the more difficult reading is an oversimplification that does not adequately consider D's special properties. Ehrman, at this point, has ignored an even more basic principle -- Hort's Axiom itself.
JW: "690 pages! I have faith that in a book that size the author has identified related Patristic evidence, which presumably he thinks supports "angry"."
I don't. Afaik, the only possible patristic reference that I didn't cover in the post is a reference in Ephraem Syrus' commentary on the Diatessaron, but it is very loose, and is capable of being the result of a confusion of two similar Syriac words.
Regarding Head's comment, I have been busy in 3D, but do plan to address it in detail, when I think up a fitting metaphor. In the meantime, I do not grant that anyone has explained why almost all scribes except those of 5 medieval Byz copies and three OL and Codex Bezae would insert "moved with compassion" rather than simply excise "angry" so as to harmonize with the parallels.
JW:
This will be my last post on this subject at this Blog as I think future comments from me are more likely to annoy than entertain.
Intrinsic = Ehrman righteously points out that the offending phrase has a few relatively harsh words (softened in English) that support "angry" and elsewhere describes Jesus with strong emotion. For a Skeptic such as myself "style" is a relatively important criteria and I note with interest that an angry Jesus at 1:41 bookends (so to speak) with a universally agreed angry Jesus at the end of the Galilean Ministry. This repetition of significant word at the start and end of related blocks is a phenomena I see several times in GMark and for me is the best evidence that "angry" is original.
Transcriptional = GMatthew/GLuke are editors so if they do not like a word or any similar word they will exorcise the offending word. Scribes are copyists so they are less likely to exorcise. At the time of our extant External evidence Scribes know that there is an adjective word there. Their decision is which one to choose. Additionally, 1:41 fits the pattern of other Textual Criticism issues with very early but little External evidence but much better Difficult Reading Principle evidence.
For me 1:41 would be much more interesting to debate than the LE or 1:1 since it has so much less supporting evidence.
Joseph
For me 1:41 is far more inter
Im no textual scholar, but Jesus' willingness to heal was questioned. Thats an attack on his character. Did he ever turn anyone away who asked for healing? Perhaps Jesus was angry at the lie or deception that he was unwilling.
Here is what Mounce said on the issue:
https://www.billmounce.com/monday-with-mounce/little-text-criticism-mark-1-41
If Compassion were Jesus' eternal and natural state, why would Mark feel compelled to express it?
"Jesus, wearing clothes, addressed the gathering ... " not remarkable.
"Jesus, wearing bunny slippers, addressed the gathering ... " remarkable.
Don Quinn,
It should be kept in mind that we're discussing a reading in the first chapter of what is usually thought to be the first written Gospel. It's not as if Mark could count on his readers to be aware from the get-go of Jesus' eternal and natural state.
If Jesus came to set up a clinic, its receptionist would greet people off the street with compassion.
Since he came to reveal human beings' divinity, he might have been frustrated that so many thought he came to set up a clinic.
Unknown, (Real names, please)
<< Since he came to reveal human beings' divinity >>
If you think Jesus came to "reveal our divinity," rather than our need to repent and receive a new spiritual nature, I suggest that your soteriology needs some work. That sort of argument is not exactly persuasive. Plus, there's a "clinic" scene earlier, in Mk. 1:34, and exorcisms in 1:39. And in 1:30-31, Jesus heals Peter's mother-in-law without onjection. The roles of healer, and of intercessor, do not seem to be exclusive at all in the Gospel of Mark.
Exactly. He wouldn’t be upset. Not to mention He healed many who wanted to get well.
I can see if Jesus didn’t want to heal people and they were all in His face but that was never the case
Exactly. He wouldn’t be upset. Not to mention He healed many who wanted to get well.
I can see if Jesus didn’t want to heal people and they were all in His face but that was never the case
Unknown, (Real names, please)
<< Since he came to reveal human beings' divinity >>
If you think Jesus came to "reveal our divinity," rather than our need to repent and receive a new spiritual nature, I suggest that your soteriology needs some work.
I'm Don Quinn.
Revealing our divinity is the means and the reason for repentance ("Rethinking") and receiving ("Realizing") our nature, which is given by god, not learned from peers and books. They are not only compatible, but mutually necessary to become whole.
"Rather than" is a false dichotomy where there is none.
Excellent point.
Thank you for your research It is greatly appreciated!!
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